Originally posted by Richard Tarleton
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If the Royal baby is a girl, should the name 'Jacinta' be one of its names?!
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Originally posted by Richard Tarleton View PostIt's the balance of probabliities. See mine above about the likelihood of Edward, Duke of Kent being sterile.
On the genetic front:
1. Queen Victoria was a carrier for haemophilia. There are two possible explanations for this. One is that she inherited it from a parent. The medical history of her mother was traced back through seventeen generations, with no cases of haemophilia. It was not present in the Hanoverians. Therefore, either it was a genetic mutation (chances of between 1 in 25,000 and 1 in 100,000 per generation), or she inherited it from her father, whoever he was.
2. Porphyria (which we all know George lll suffered from) had been prevalent in the royal family for several generations and stopped abruptly with Victoria. It is a dominant gene, so all who carry it display its symptoms, however mildly - flatulence, colic, itchy skin, constipation, discoloured urine. In other words, Victoria did not inherit it from her supposed father, Edward Duke of Kent, who carried the dominant gene, inherited from his father (George lll), nor did she pass it on to her children.
I have yet to hear any refutation or counter-argument to AN Wilson's fascinating analysis. I daresay it's one of those topics that's just too embarrassing to discuss, and the participants are hardly likely to submit to DNA tests (not quite sure who would have to be tested).
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Richard Tarleton
Even the website of the British monarchy seems to acknowledge that George lll suffered from the "hereditary" condition of porphyria.
The haemophilia argument is perhaps the harder to refute.
The Duke of Wellington, who was no fool in these matters, was convinced Victoria's mother and Conroy were lovers.
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Originally posted by Sydney Grew View PostThe regrettable but ineluctable truth is that the mother is a commoner, and the way has thus now been opened to a new war of succession at some point in the future, a war for which the wise heads in the Nation should prepare themselves.
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Originally posted by Richard Tarleton View PostIt's the balance of probabliities. See mine above about the likelihood of Edward, Duke of Kent being sterile.
On the genetic front:
...2. Porphyria ... is a dominant gene, so all who carry it display its symptoms, however mildly...
If the Duke of Kent had the recessive form of porphyria, he might have passed it on, but the gene may not have been expressed in the offspring.
It doesn't scotch the idea, but it should make us a bit cautious.
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We seem to have come quite a long way from the "Royal baby" of the thread topic - but why "Royal" baby anyway? Third in line to a "throne" that may no longer exist by the time that the possibilty of accession might otherwise have fallen to him is all very well insofar as it might go but, given that he is but one day old and has accordingly carried out no "royal" duties, isn't the use of the term at best premature and at worst misleading?
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Originally posted by mangerton View PostThere have already been two Charles, neither of whom was much to write home about.
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