Originally posted by Lateralthinking1
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In the meantime, perhaps the most pragmatic and non-side-taking answer to the question posed in this thread is that, whether or not such disenfranchisement makes all prisoners political ones, it is in any case wrong in principle in all instances other than those where prisoners have specifically been convicted of electoral fraud; the reason for this is that, if that disenfranchisement has no direct connection with the crime committed by the prisoner, it has no business to be imposed and therefore represents a withdrawal of a fundamental human right that has no credible place as part of a punishment for the crime concerned.
David Cameron stated some time ago that the prospect of restoring prisoner's voting rights made him feel sick; shall we therefore all have a whip-round to buy him some sick bags in advance of the overturning of this regrettable blot on the British judicial landscape?
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