Originally posted by ferneyhoughgeliebte
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Phrases/words that set your teeth on edge.
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Originally posted by Pabmusic View PostThe odd thing is that - as Bill Bryson points out - most British dictionaries give -ize as the preferred spelling, but most British writers ignore that.
But if you try to distinguish between etymologically correct -ize (in words of Greek origin) and -ise, you are almost bound to get some wrong. So if you want to opt for one, -ise is safer.
But if it's true that Americans prefer s how to account for analyze, which although of Greek origin was never a verb but is a backformation from analysis?
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Originally posted by Pabmusic View PostThe odd thing is that - as Bill Bryson points out - most British dictionaries give -ize as the preferred spelling, but most British writers ignore that.
(And, as Inspector Morse demonstrated, using "ise" is sure sign of criminal mentality )[FONT=Comic Sans MS][I][B]Numquam Satis![/B][/I][/FONT]
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It just repeats Fowler's argument, as I pointed out above (#2779). But even your author admits that the Frence regularised all these verbs of Greek origin to -ise, so all we have to do is say that's where we're getting our spellings from.
Originally posted by Pabmusic View PostThe odd thing is that - as Bill Bryson points out - most British dictionaries give -ize as the preferred spelling, but most British writers ignore that.
But if you try to distinguish between etymologically correct -ize (in words of Greek origin) and -ise, you are almost bound to get some wrong. So if you want to opt for one, -ise is safer.
But if it's true that Americans prefer s how to account for analyze, which although of Greek origin was never a verb but is a backformation from analysis?
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Originally posted by jean View PostIt just repeats Fowler's argument, as I pointed out above:
Fowler preferred it, which may account for that.
But if you try to distinguish between etymologically correct -ize (in words of Greek origin) and -ise, you are almost bound to get some wrong. So if you want to opt for one, -ise is safer.
But if it's true that Americans prefer s how to account for analyze, which although of Greek origin was never a verb but is a backformation from analysis?
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You're right, I'm getting confused - probably because it isn't an American/British thing at all.
And what's really wrong with Bryn's link is that it tries to argue that regularisinf the spelling comes from a zeal to iron out a logical diversity.
But there's nothing logical about etymology. Or spelling.
.Last edited by jean; 30-11-15, 14:08.
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Originally posted by ferneyhoughgeliebte View PostYes - the preferred belief that "ize" is an "Americanism" dies hard.
(And, as Inspector Morse demonstrated, using "ise" is sure sign of criminal mentality )
Anyway, yes - and, for example, I don't ever recall seeing "bowdlerized" anywhere on either side of the lake (not that I'm therefore claiming that it hasn't been used, of course!)...
Might "scottify" be regarded (rightly or wrongly) as an "Americanism", given its non-UK & non-US origins?...Last edited by ahinton; 30-11-15, 11:20.
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Originally posted by jean View PostBut there's nothing logical about etymology. Or spelling.It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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