Originally posted by french frank
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Pedants' Paradise
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This is a sticky topic.
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Originally posted by ferneyhoughgeliebte View PostYes - Uncle Jack must have used the original, and the kids have remembered it faultylyly. (Which is why it is appropriate in a novel in which women are infantilized and commodified, no?)It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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Originally posted by jean View PostIt would be an extraordinary coincidence if they came up with 'carborundorum' without ever having heard the original 'carborundum', don't you think?
[Then, of course, there's Rupert Sheldrake's morphic resonance hypothesis. ]
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Originally posted by Bryn View PostNothing surprising about it at all. When Atwood was in secondary or tertiary education a carborundum stone would have been in many households' tool kits, used for sharpening/grinding down, a wide range of metal cutting instruments.
NB Secondary school, surely, since she referred to 'children'.It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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Originally posted by Bryn View PostMy update, posted some 10 minutes prior to your message quoted above, deals with the question of 'coincidence'.
Plus a later corrected typo …Last edited by french frank; 12-07-17, 21:10.It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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Originally posted by Bryn View PostNothing surprising about it at all...
But seriously: telling us that Atwood had good reason to know the word carborundum and the substance it denotes does not explain the coincidence as I set it out.
It's not just that two people or groups of people knew the word carborundum and what it meant. We also have to suppose that each, with no knowledge of what the other was up to, wrote a piece of cod-Latin in which they transfomed the English noun into a Latin verb.
Or rather, that one of them noticed that the English noun had exactly the form of a Latin gerundive, and formed a Latin sentence which would have been perfectly grammatically correct if carborundum had been a gerundive.
But the other (independently, we're asked to believe) added a genitive plural ending to carborundum, and constructed a sentence which only looked like Latin, and then only if you didn't look too closely.
For Atwood to have made conscious use in her book of one version rather than the other, she would have had to realise at some point that there were two versions. When did she realise, do you think? And if it's true that the existence of the two is pure coincidence and they have nothing to do with each other, what possible point could she have been making (about American education, or anything else) by choosing one over the other?
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Originally posted by jean View PostDon't be silly! Atwood was a girl!
But seriously: telling us that Atwood had good reason to know the word carborundum and the substance it denotes does not explain the coincidence as I set it out.
It's not just that two people or groups of people knew the word carborundum and what it meant. We also have to suppose that each, with no knowledge of what the other was up to, wrote a piece of cod-Latin in which they transfomed the English noun into a Latin verb.
Or rather, that one of them noticed that the English noun had exactly the form of a Latin gerundive, and formed a Latin sentence which would have been perfectly grammatically correct if carborundum had been a gerundive.
But the other (independently, we're asked to believe) added a genitive plural ending to carborundum, and constructed a sentence which only looked like Latin, and then only if you didn't look too closely.
For Atwood to have made conscious use in her book of one version rather than the other, she would have had to realise at some point that there were two versions. When did she realise, do you think? And if it's true that the existence of the two is pure coincidence and they have nothing to do with each other, what possible point could she have been making (about American education, or anything else) by choosing one over the other?
The type of Latin spoken by common and foreign folk became increasingly Vulgar unlike in the Church of Rome where it remained pure and infallible.
Didn't you know ?
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Originally posted by jean View Postwhat possible point could she have been making (about American education, or anything else) by choosing one over the other?It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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Originally posted by P. G. Tipps View PostThe type of Latin spoken by common and foreign folk became increasingly Vulgar unlike in the Church of Rome where it remained pure and infallible.
Here are some, though as far as I can see, silicon carbide doesn't feature.
Perhaps you should tell His Holiness of the omission.
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Originally posted by vinteuil View Post... indeed so : and we can further discuss whether the full stop necessary after the sentence ending 'pedant' needs to be supplemented by a further stop outside those quotation marks to conclude the sentence beginning with 'Perhaps... '.
We also need to determine whether there shd be a space between meant and the following colon, as continental usage normally requires, or whether we shd follow standard (but not without exceptions) English practice of leaving no space between a word and its succeeding colon : I see that keraulophon in #3493 adopts current standard English usage...
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