Pedants' Paradise

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  • vinteuil
    Full Member
    • Nov 2010
    • 12936

    Originally posted by jean View Post
    Having only arrived at being married via a civil partnership ceremony whose wording I cannot now remember, I don't know the answers to your questions - except that I've often heard it said that we think the wording of the marriage service is 'I do' when actually it isn't.

    I'll see if I can find some evidence for that as a common misapprehension.
    ... mine was a civil wedding; I cannot recall the exact words. From this I think that neither "I will" nor "I do" was used -

    Comment

    • subcontrabass
      Full Member
      • Nov 2010
      • 2780

      There seem to be currently several slightly different options available for civil marriage:

      Contracting words

      Traditional


      I call upon these persons, here present, to witness that I (your full name) do take thee (your partner's full name) to be my lawful wedded wife/husband.

      Modern

      I (your full name), take you (your partner's full name) to be my wedded wife/husband.

      Simplified

      I (your full name) take thee (your partner's full name) to be my wedded wife/husband.

      Comment

      • Pulcinella
        Host
        • Feb 2014
        • 11062

        From a letter in today's Times:

        .....there was no need of computers to tell them what had been tried before;

        Now, the human race is in need of a cure for cancer, but I would have written 'need for' rather than 'need of' in the extract above.

        Any thoughts?

        Comment

        • Pulcinella
          Host
          • Feb 2014
          • 11062

          Thanks, jean.
          I nearly added a 'rider' to my posting, saying that the construction I preferred was really 'in need of', the 'in' making a difference, as your extract points out.

          Interesting, as ever, to see (learn) how use/usage changes.

          Comment

          • gurnemanz
            Full Member
            • Nov 2010
            • 7405

            Originally posted by jean View Post
            The difficulty I remember from teaching EFL was with need as a verb, which sometimes behaves like a modal and sometimes not - you need not vs you don't need to.
            A similar case I remember from teaching EFL is "dare" - sometimes modal, sometimes not. ( I dare say. They didn't dare to contradict their teacher). Link.
            The difference between the two is that "need" was not originally modal but started to behave like one, presumably by analogy with "must", whereas "dare" was originally modal and has started to behave in a non-modal way. There was a cognate in mediaeval German, "tar", which was a modal. It has completely died out in modern German.

            Comment

            • oddoneout
              Full Member
              • Nov 2015
              • 9272

              Originally posted by Pulcinella View Post
              From a letter in today's Times:

              .....there was no need of computers to tell them what had been tried before;

              Now, the human race is in need of a cure for cancer, but I would have written 'need for' rather than 'need of' in the extract above.

              Any thoughts?
              My initial reaction was 'they had no need of' rather than changing 'of' to 'for', since for me it fitted better with the rest of the sentence.
              Regarding jean's post(haven't got the number in this reply mode) about current modern usage has 'we have a need for' become 'we need' in most circumstances?

              Comment

              • Pulcinella
                Host
                • Feb 2014
                • 11062

                Originally posted by oddoneout View Post
                My initial reaction was 'they had no need of' rather than changing 'of' to 'for', since for me it fitted better with the rest of the sentence.
                Regarding jean's post(haven't got the number in this reply mode) about current modern usage has 'we have a need for' become 'we need' in most circumstances?
                Yes, 'they had no need of computers' works fine, doesn't it?
                It's the implicit requirement put on the computers that made the original jar (for me); the computers would probably say 'no'!

                Comment

                • ardcarp
                  Late member
                  • Nov 2010
                  • 11102

                  A woman being interviewed on The Today programme used the word 'precarity. She meant it as the noun from 'precarious'. I wonder if the word exists, or whether she had 'back-formed' it from the adjectival form. Personally I would have used 'precariousness'.
                  (I'm not being Mr Grumpy about it. Just interested.)

                  Comment

                  • subcontrabass
                    Full Member
                    • Nov 2010
                    • 2780

                    Originally posted by ardcarp View Post
                    A woman being interviewed on The Today programme used the word 'precarity. She meant it as the noun from 'precarious'. I wonder if the word exists, or whether she had 'back-formed' it from the adjectival form. Personally I would have used 'precariousness'.
                    (I'm not being Mr Grumpy about it. Just interested.)
                    The word seems to have some currency. Wikipedia gives the earliest use as 1952. Other references give it as a technical term in sociology, where it is distinguished from "precariousness" (although I have difficulty in seeing the difference). OED does not list "precarity".

                    Comment

                    • vinteuil
                      Full Member
                      • Nov 2010
                      • 12936

                      Originally posted by ardcarp View Post
                      A woman being interviewed on The Today programme used the word 'precarity. She meant it as the noun from 'precarious'. I wonder if the word exists, or whether she had 'back-formed' it from the adjectival form. Personally I would have used 'precariousness'.
                      (I'm not being Mr Grumpy about it. Just interested.)
                      .

                      ... as in 'the precariat'


                      .

                      Comment

                      • jean
                        Late member
                        • Nov 2010
                        • 7100

                        It would be nice if it was a word, as the -ity ending so nicely represents Latin abstract nouns in -itas.

                        There's the adjective carus, which gives the abstract noun caritas, which ends up in English as charity.

                        However the adjective precarius, from which we get precarious, isn't related. It's applied to something obtained by begging, entreaty or prayer and though Latin allows you a concrete noun precarium, a thing obtained by entreaty, there's no corresponding abstract noun.

                        But since we have tweaked the meaning of precarious somewhat, why shouldn't we have an abstract noun from it if we want? And why shouldn't we make it on the pattern of a Latin one, if it pleases us to do so?

                        Comment

                        • ardcarp
                          Late member
                          • Nov 2010
                          • 11102

                          Other references give it as a technical term in sociology
                          I did wonder if it was a new-speak word. The woman in question dealt in 'conversations', 'engagement' and the like. However, I'm glad Jean welcomes it as a worthy addition to our lexicon. I couldn't help thinking of 'ubi caritas et amor'.

                          Comment

                          • gurnemanz
                            Full Member
                            • Nov 2010
                            • 7405

                            Of adjectives ending "-arious" only "hilarity" seems to follow the same pattern, though "gregarity" and "multifarity" would work OK for me.

                            Comment

                            • french frank
                              Administrator/Moderator
                              • Feb 2007
                              • 30456

                              Originally posted by jean View Post
                              But since we have tweaked the meaning of precarious somewhat, why shouldn't we have an abstract noun from it if we want? And why shouldn't we make it on the pattern of a Latin one, if it pleases us to do so?
                              But was it used because it pleased someone to use it? Or because, given that other similar models exist, it was used analogously? From the linguistic point of view we can say that it was and is used, and that it was invented to fill a perceived lack in the language.

                              I imagine that it isn't formed on the analogy of hilaritas and caritas, since there was no word precaritas. It seems to share the formation of later inventions like secretariat < secretariatus and commissariat < commissariatus which denoted particular classes of people.

                              On precarius, according to my dictionary, Ovid and Tacitus did use it to mean 'uncertain' or 'precarious'.
                              It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.

                              Comment

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