Pedants' Paradise

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  • Eine Alpensinfonie
    Host
    • Nov 2010
    • 20562

    Originally posted by vinteuil View Post
    ... and when you speak, how do you articulate the apostrophe?
    I've often wondered that myself. You don't notice the spelling mistakes either. Possible the intonation of the voice helps to overcome confusions that might occur with the written word.

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    • vinteuil
      Full Member
      • Nov 2010
      • 12662

      Originally posted by vinteuil View Post
      ... and when you speak, how do you articulate the apostrophe?
      Originally posted by Eine Alpensinfonie View Post
      I've often wondered that myself...
      ... well, the Danes thought they had an answer -

      Enjoy the videos and music you love, upload original content, and share it all with friends, family, and the world on YouTube.

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      • Serial_Apologist
        Full Member
        • Dec 2010
        • 37314

        There were rules of grammar into which we were drilled at school, back in the 1950s and 1960s. (Not that I wrote "into which we were drilled" as opposed to "we were drilled into", because one never, never ended a sentance a preposition with). Noticing as one does that correct spoken English seems most often to be observed in non-primarily English speaking people - especially from MEPs from Germany, Holland and the Scandinavian countries during the course of the EU referendum - it occurs that one source of good spoken English, which must surely have derived from the written, might be preserved by continuing to defend immigration from those countries, post-Brexit! For while modernisation of the language can be presented as a pretext for accepting any new changes to the language whatever, given that it only takes, for example, one person to refuse to insert apostrophes where they've previously been so to be taken as legitimate, how it will be made easier, from this time on, for anyone from non-English speaking countries to learn what is already one of the most difficult of languages in the western world to learn is anyone's guess.

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        • Nick Armstrong
          Host
          • Nov 2010
          • 26439

          Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View Post
          There were rules of grammar into which we were drilled at school, back in the 1950s and 1960s. (Not that I wrote "into which we were drilled" as opposed to "we were drilled into", because one never, never ended a sentance a preposition with).
          Surely the rules were drilled into you, rather than the other way around?

          "...the isle is full of noises,
          Sounds and sweet airs, that give delight and hurt not.
          Sometimes a thousand twangling instruments
          Will hum about mine ears, and sometime voices..."

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          • vinteuil
            Full Member
            • Nov 2010
            • 12662

            Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View Post
            ... one source of good spoken English, which must surely have derived from the written....
            ... erm?

            I suspect Serial comes from a Protestant tradition, believing that a written New Testament somehow preceded a practising Church

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            • umslopogaas
              Full Member
              • Nov 2010
              • 1977

              And as Winston Churchill said when told he should not end a sentence with a preposition:

              "This is the kind of arrant pedantry up with which I will not put!"

              Comment

              • Serial_Apologist
                Full Member
                • Dec 2010
                • 37314

                Originally posted by vinteuil View Post
                ... erm?

                I suspect Serial comes from a Protestant tradition, believing that a written New Testament somehow preceded a practising Church
                Well, I was thinking of people whose correct spoken English, in all probability, must have derived from the correctly written kind as taught, as opposed to the colloquial.

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                • Serial_Apologist
                  Full Member
                  • Dec 2010
                  • 37314

                  Originally posted by Caliban View Post
                  Surely the rules were drilled into you, rather than the other way around?



                  OK, "drilled in" then - or "... in which we were drilled".

                  Comment

                  • Serial_Apologist
                    Full Member
                    • Dec 2010
                    • 37314

                    Originally posted by umslopogaas View Post
                    And as Winston Churchill said when told he should not end a sentence with a preposition:

                    "This is the kind of arrant pedantry up with which I will not put!"

                    Comment

                    • vinteuil
                      Full Member
                      • Nov 2010
                      • 12662

                      Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View Post
                      Well, I was thinking of people whose correct spoken English, in all probability, must have derived from the correctly written kind as taught, as opposed to the colloquial.
                      ... and languages that have no written form, or which have only acquired a written form recently - do the speakers thereof not speak "correctly", even without the benefit of writing?

                      Comment

                      • Serial_Apologist
                        Full Member
                        • Dec 2010
                        • 37314

                        Originally posted by vinteuil View Post
                        ... and languages that have no written form, or which have only acquired a written form recently - do the speakers thereof not speak "correctly", even without the benefit of writing?
                        I don't know the answer to that, assuming there is one. Presumably language formalisation was helped, if not enabled, by being written down. Can one say that?

                        Comment

                        • ahinton
                          Full Member
                          • Nov 2010
                          • 16122

                          Originally posted by Eine Alpensinfonie View Post
                          My father never visited the Alps.
                          John Adams' father never knew Charles Ives either...

                          Comment

                          • Eine Alpensinfonie
                            Host
                            • Nov 2010
                            • 20562

                            Originally posted by french frank View Post

                            The rigid so-called 'rules' of language laid out how language usage had developed among the educated classes (especially those of the 19th c.). Language came first; the 'rules' came afterwards, fossilising usages that were no longer current and insisting that they must continue to be adhered to.

                            Standardising language is not necessarily fossilising it. It just prevent chaos. Adhering to the language of the educated classes may be a better starting place than the uneducated classes. That could be called snobbery, but let's not go there.

                            Comment

                            • jean
                              Late member
                              • Nov 2010
                              • 7100

                              Originally posted by Eine Alpensinfonie View Post
                              That could be called snobbery, but let's not go there.
                              You just have!

                              Comment

                              • vinteuil
                                Full Member
                                • Nov 2010
                                • 12662

                                Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View Post
                                I don't know the answer to that, assuming there is one. Presumably language formalisation was helped, if not enabled, by being written down. Can one say that?
                                ... but in what way has any of this to do with forms which some people wish to assert as 'correct' or 'incorrect', when the only real indication is usage? I don't think the written form is helpful. Some languages have distinctly different written and spoken forms - French, for example. Notions of 'correctness' in the spoken form don't flow from what might be regarded as 'correct' in the written.

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