Originally posted by vinteuil
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Pedants' Paradise
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This is a sticky topic.
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Originally posted by ardcarp View PostThere is a view that apostrophes should be completely abandoned. The occasions when possessives or omitted letters get confused with simple plurals are so rare as to be negligible. In the phrase "Johns coat" we know perfectly well we are talking about the coat belonging to John. "Its a fine day" unambiguously means that the day is fine. So although in practice I'm [Im?] a paid-up member of the apostrophe police, if it became acceptable not to use them at all, I'd [Id?] be happy.[FONT=Comic Sans MS][I][B]Numquam Satis![/B][/I][/FONT]
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Originally posted by Eine Alpensinfonie View PostHow about: The As and Bs have come out crooked?
Using apostrophes in plurals such as these seems more prevalent in the US papers I get to edit.
I take them out (risking the wrath of the authors), maintaining that a change of font is adequate if the plural form really needs to be used (variable in italic, s in roman), or, more usually, also remove the s and make the sense plural by using such terminology as .......(complicated equation), where the p represent pedants and the q quibblers!
Loved Panini's, by the way!
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Originally posted by vinteuil View PostPlace names seem quite unpredictable. Earls Court but Baron's Court; Shepherd's Bush Green but Golders Green and Palmers Green. Why no apostrophes for All Souls (Oxford), Bury St Edmunds, Johns Hopkins University, Owens College (Manchester), St Albans, St Andrews, St Bees, St Helens (Merseyside), St Kitts, St Leonards, St Neots (Cambridgeshire)?
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Don Petter
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Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View PostHomogeneous
My 1942 Oxford Dictionary has this word pronounced homoge'neous, with the first e prounounced "ee", but more and more I hear it pronounced homo'geneous with the first e short, and the second omitted altogether.
Which, if either of these, is correct, please?I keep hitting the Escape key, but I'm still here!
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Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View PostHomogeneous
My 1942 Oxford Dictionary has this word pronounced homoge'neous, with the first e prounounced "ee", but more and more I hear it pronounced homo'geneous with the first e short, and the second omitted altogether.
Which, if either of these, is correct, please?
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Originally posted by jean View PostHomogeneous and homogenous are two different words. Your dictionary has probably got a separate entry for the second.
"homoge.nious, a. Of the same kind; consisting of parts all of the same kind, uniform. Hence or cogn. homogene.ITY, homoge.neousNESS, nn, homogeneousLY adv. [f. schol. L homogeneus f. Gk HOMO(genes f. genos kind) = OUS]"
(The Concise Oxford Dictionary of Current English - Adapted by H.W.Fowler and F.G Fowler from The Oxford Dictionary - Third Edition 1934 reprinted 1940, not 1942, sorry!)
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Originally posted by jean View PostHomogeneous and homogenous are two different words. Your dictionary has probably got a separate entry for the second.
Yes, my [first edn] OED has separate entries for homogeneous and homogenous.
But I note that in the 1976 Supplement to the OED under homogeneous there is a footnote -
¶ The spelling homogenous is less common than the pronunc. [homo'djinus], which perh. owes its currency partly to the vb. homogenize and its derivs.
(The six 'homogenous' examples, still in the 'homogeneous' entry, following the footnote (from 1956, 1961, 1964,1970, 1971, 1972) seem to have the meaning 'homogeneous'. )
On the same page it is writ :
homogenous, var *HOMOGENEOUS a.
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Originally posted by vinteuil View Post... isn't it a little more complicated than that, jean?
But seriously...would the pronunciation/spelling homogenous for homogeneous have taken root without some memory, however dim, of the other word? Or was it just the existence of homogenise that did it?
(I didn't think anyone pronounced heterogeneous as heterogenous, but I checked, and apparently they do, even thought there's no separate word heterogenous. I don't know where this leaves whatever argument I was trying to make.)
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