Pedants' Paradise

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  • kea
    Full Member
    • Dec 2013
    • 749

    Originally posted by LeMartinPecheur View Post
    Not a gripe about current usage but a straight question: Does anyone here pronounce forte (as in "His forte is public speaking") as a monosyllable?
    In the sentence you've given (& similar constructions) I pronounce it as a monosyllable. When I use it as a musical term, two syllables.

    I don't really know where I picked up the idea that that was correct.

    Comment

    • jean
      Late member
      • Nov 2010
      • 7100

      It is, though, as the musical term is Italian, while the other is French - see my previous post:

      Originally posted by jean View Post
      The OED says:

      Pronunciation: ( /ˈfɔːti/ , /ˈfɔːteɪ/ , formerly /fɔːt/ )

      Etymology: < French fort, absolute use of fort strong

      Comment

      • Pabmusic
        Full Member
        • May 2011
        • 5537

        Originally posted by LeMartinPecheur View Post
        Not a gripe about current usage but a straight question: Does anyone here pronounce forte (as in "His forte is public speaking") as a monosyllable?

        I'll explain later if anyone's interested...
        Yes, I have done since I was in my teens.

        Comment

        • kea
          Full Member
          • Dec 2013
          • 749

          Originally posted by jean View Post
          It is, though, as the musical term is Italian, while the other is French - see my previous post:
          Ah, I missed that the first time around, somehow. Makes sense.

          What about the different pronunciations of motif and motive? That's always confused me >.>

          Comment

          • Bryn
            Banned
            • Mar 2007
            • 24688

            Originally posted by jean View Post
            As it's French rather than Italian in origin, I can't see why anyone would not pronounce it as a monosyllable!

            The OED says:

            Pronunciation: ( /ˈfɔːti/ , /ˈfɔːteɪ/ , formerly /fɔːt/ )

            Etymology: < French fort, absolute use of fort strong
            I take it you do not pronounce the "t" then.

            Comment

            • jean
              Late member
              • Nov 2010
              • 7100

              Originally posted by kea View Post
              What about the different pronunciations of motif and motive?
              I think the simplest answer is that they're both from the French, the latter more anglicised than the former - and as so often when two different spellings and/or pronunciations become established, the words begin to think of themselves as independent entities and go their separate ways - cf. discrete/discreet.

              (Which reminds me- I was quite surprised to find, at the recent Richard Hamilton exhibition, that the insufficiently-anglicised hommage was is use as early as the 1960s to refer to Hamilton's relationship with Duchamp.)

              Comment

              • jean
                Late member
                • Nov 2010
                • 7100

                Originally posted by Bryn View Post
                I take it you do not pronounce the "t" then.
                It's not necessary to go so far. What we're after is a naturalised English pronunciation of a French word, without Italian accretions.

                (Actually, I don't say it much at all, because I know people will think my etymologically-evidenced pronunciation is wrong. I will know this by the expressions on their faces, and I won't really have the chance to explain.)

                Comment

                • Pabmusic
                  Full Member
                  • May 2011
                  • 5537

                  Originally posted by jean View Post
                  I...the insufficiently-anglicised [I]hommage[/I...

                  Whatever happened to 'homidge" - gone the way of garidge and baridge?

                  Comment

                  • kea
                    Full Member
                    • Dec 2013
                    • 749

                    Originally posted by jean View Post
                    I think the simplest answer is that they're both from the French, the latter more anglicised than the former - and as so often when two different spellings and/or pronunciations become established, the words begin to think of themselves as independent entities and go their separate ways - cf. discrete/discreet.
                    Interesting. I always pronounced discrete and discreet the same, but now I'm not going to anymore.

                    Originally posted by Pabmusic View Post
                    Whatever happened to 'homidge" - gone the way of garidge and baridge?
                    All three of those are still things around here, but in America everyone says garaaazh and homaaazh for whatever reason. I blame the Marquis de Lafayette.

                    Comment

                    • jean
                      Late member
                      • Nov 2010
                      • 7100

                      Originally posted by Pabmusic View Post
                      Whatever happened to 'homidge" - gone the way of garidge and baridge?
                      I don't think so - it has an independent existence with a somewhat different meaning.

                      Comment

                      • Bryn
                        Banned
                        • Mar 2007
                        • 24688

                        Originally posted by Pabmusic View Post
                        Whatever happened to 'homidge" - gone the way of garidge and baridge?
                        And as for Faridge ...

                        Comment

                        • Pabmusic
                          Full Member
                          • May 2011
                          • 5537

                          Originally posted by kea View Post
                          Interesting. I always pronounced discrete and discreet the same, but now I'm not going to anymore.



                          All three of those are still things around here, but in America everyone says garaaazh and homaaazh for whatever reason. I blame the Marquis de Lafayette.

                          Comment

                          • jean
                            Late member
                            • Nov 2010
                            • 7100

                            Originally posted by kea View Post
                            Interesting. I always pronounced discrete and discreet the same, but now I'm not going to anymore.
                            I wouldn't do that - it was or rather than and in that case!

                            Comment

                            • Pabmusic
                              Full Member
                              • May 2011
                              • 5537

                              Originally posted by jean View Post
                              I don't think so - it has an independent existence with a somewhat different meaning.
                              Different from 'hommidge'?

                              Comment

                              • Pabmusic
                                Full Member
                                • May 2011
                                • 5537

                                Originally posted by Bryn View Post
                                And as for Faridge ...
                                Keep an eye (ear?) open for the first time he accepts 'Faraaage'.

                                Comment

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