On antiques programmes: 'Making the most profit' Aarrgghh!
Pedants' Paradise
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This is a sticky topic.
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Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View PostOn a TV ad on behalf of a property investment firm this morning:
"No negative equity guarantee".
It struck me that this could mean two opposite things:
1) This offer does not automatically guarantee that if taken up, you avoid the pitfalls of negative equity; or
2) This offer automatically guarantees that if taken up, you will not be subject to negative equity.
I wonder which it is!
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We are all used to problems with overstating and understating etc, but this sentence (in Edith Wharton's The house of mirth), takes things to a different level (at least for me ):
Lily knew that Rosedale had overstated neither the difficulty of her own position nor the completeness of the vindication he offered.
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Originally posted by oddoneout View PostOn the listing for this evening's concert the following appears:
The music is on the disc I would have thought, otherwise it would be difficult to broadcast it? Presumably what they mean is 'from disc'.
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Originally posted by oddoneout View PostOn the listing for this evening's concert the following appears:
The music is on the disc I would have thought, otherwise it would be difficult to broadcast it? Presumably what they mean is 'from disc'.It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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"Lost path finder"
As it happens I already knew what this was about, having read an article about it, before it was mentioned just now on Breakfast. It sounded though as if Georgia was struggling rather(and I can't say I blame her) to use the phrase without giving completely the wrong meaning. A stray hyphen could put a different slant on what it actually means and doubtless will appear like that in many places. Headline " Lost path-finder well off beaten track".
This is the article I read https://www.theguardian.com/lifeands...-england-wales
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In this frequently broadcast peak time TV ad for Sun Life Insurance, one of the actors states, "They guarantee to pay 100% of claims".
One needs to know, does this mean 100% of the claims submitted, or 100% of each total claim made? Shouldn't the Trades description folks be onto this ambiguity like a ton of bricks? I ask, because in another insurance ad, for Royal London, also repeatedly played on peak time TV, a character is made to say, "Last year they paid every over-50s claim".
Apart from reinforcing the above question pertaining to claims per se or the proportion of the pay outs thereof - along with the fact that this particular ad has been playing for well over a year now BTW, making trash of the, er, claim as regards the last year - surely the statement as regards every over-50s claim would have to apply to false claims as well for it to be true?
All this just seems to amount to falsification par excellence. Or does the law allow them to get away with it?
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Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View PostIn this frequently broadcast peak time TV ad for Sun Life Insurance, one of the actors states, "They guarantee to pay 100% of claims".
One needs to know, does this mean 100% of the claims submitted, or 100% of each total claim made? Shouldn't the Trades description folks be onto this ambiguity like a ton of bricks? I ask, because in another insurance ad, for Royal London, also repeatedly played on peak time TV, a character is made to say, "Last year they paid every over-50s claim".
Apart from reinforcing the above question pertaining to claims per se or the proportion of the pay outs thereof - along with the fact that this particular ad has been playing for well over a year now BTW, making trash of the, er, claim as regards the last year - surely the statement as regards every over-50s claim would have to apply to false claims as well for it to be true?
All this just seems to amount to falsification par excellence. Or does the law allow them to get away with it?
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