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There is a fairly lengthy article in Modern English Usage [1926 edn] in which Fowler explains why different to is a perfectly acceptable usage, 'found in writers of all ages', and why the objection to it is mere superstition.
I tend to use different from but don't object to different to. I understand that different than is - an Americanism...
Similar to ( = convergent, towards)//different from (= divergent, away from).
Simples.
And considering that 'different' is formed from a present participle, differens, would one ever be tempted to say 'to differ to' - this differs to what I was taught was correct?
Still, more shocking if Her Maj had said 'different than'.
My New Years resolution is to annoy less grammar pedants
"...the isle is full of noises,
Sounds and sweet airs, that give delight and hurt not.
Sometimes a thousand twangling instruments
Will hum about mine ears, and sometime voices..."
There is a fairly lengthy article in Modern English Usage [1926 edn] in which Fowler explains why different to is a perfectly acceptable usage, 'found in writers of all ages', and why the objection to it is mere superstition.
When Fowler quotes usage from the past, all he is showing is that people have been messing up the language for millennia. That doesn't necessarily mean it's ok.
... he doesn't just quote usage, he demonstrates over several paragraphs why the usage is reasonable and not inconsistent with how our language functions.
I am surprized to see Alpie using the Americanism 'ok' - still more to see him departing from normal form and expressing it in lower case.
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