Originally posted by Pabmusic
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Pedants' Paradise
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This is a sticky topic.
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Originally posted by Bryn View PostSurely the 'rules' are essentially descriptive rather then prescriptive. With the principal exception of Esperanto, spoken languages evolved,and continue to evolve organically, rather than a set of rules being constructed and then words invented to follow those rules.
The 'rules' we were all taught at primary school - Don't split amn infinitive, don't end a sentence with a preposition, and (for some, apparently) adverbs always end in -ly are prescriptive by their nature, and while they may be derived from the way English actually works, they may derive only from attempts by grammarians wedded to Latin to make English behave in the same way.
But all language is rule-governed, and these are 'rules' of a different sort, not imposed from without. Identifying the 'rules' speakers actually use is what linguists do These two senses of 'rule' need to be understood and differentiated.
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Originally posted by gurnemanz View PostAs I understand it (it was many years ago that I studied all this) deep structure rules are the hard-wired syntax which we master intuitively as babies and which governs the way human language behaves and generate the sentences that emerge on the surface in the form of the words of a specific language. Where the deep structure rules operate at an unconscious level and are fixed, the surface structure is much more changeable (all languages do indeed change historically) and can be the subject of both prescriptive and descriptive grammar.
I don't even think you even need to invoke Chomsky to account for the difference between prescriptive/descriptive, explicit/implicit. In fact he becomes rather a stumbling-block when you have to account for the fact that the 'rules' change, since by definition the 'deep structure' of the language doesn't.
(And of course what is understood implicitly by the native speaker and described by the linguist becomes a prescription when the language is being taught to a non-native speaker.)
.Last edited by jean; 12-08-14, 07:36.
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While we're on the subject of "going slow(ly)", it occurs to me that an offshoot of this particular neck of the pedantic woods might manifest itself in the question as to the difference, if any, between "slowing up" and "slowing down", although I'm unsure what, if anything, the Latin Grammar Police might have to say about that one...
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Originally posted by ahinton View PostWhile we're on the subject of "going slow(ly)", it occurs to me that an offshoot of this particular neck of the pedantic woods might manifest itself in the question as to the difference, if any, between "slowing up" and "slowing down", although I'm unsure what, if anything, the Latin Grammar Police might have to say about that one...[FONT=Comic Sans MS][I][B]Numquam Satis![/B][/I][/FONT]
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Originally posted by ahinton View Post...an offshoot of this particular neck of the pedantic woods might manifest itself in the question as to the difference, if any, between "slowing up" and "slowing down" although I'm unsure what, if anything, the Latin Grammar Police might have to say about that one...
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Originally posted by ferneyhoughgeliebte View PostOr that between "flammable" and "inflammable"?
It's the second meaning which should be understood in inflammable, but the possibility that someone might suppose the first instead means the word is ambiguous and had better be got rid of.
(I would love to continue this discussion but sadly I shall not be able to, because I'm going away and have never managed to make this board function in any comprehensible way on my mobile!)
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Originally posted by ferneyhoughgeliebte View PostOr that between "flammable" and "inflammable"? I would expect that the chances of getting to the bottom of such matters are both fat and slim.
Of course, a true pedant should insist on the "correct" meaning, and to hell with safety!Last edited by Pabmusic; 12-08-14, 09:13.
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Originally posted by jean View PostIf I'm one of them, my answer would be not much... it's an oddity like breaking up and breaking down, explicable largely by the fact that as they move into the realms of metaphor, prepositions tend to lose the specific physical meanings they started out with.
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amateur51
Originally posted by jean View PostThat one's easy - the prefix in can both negate the word it's prefixed to, and can mean towards.
(I would love to continue this discussion but sadly I shall not be able to, because I'm going away and have never managed to make this board function in any comprehensible way on my mobile!)[/QUOTE]Is this your Cumbrian break jean? I hope it goes well, if so
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Originally posted by amateur51 View Post(I would love to continue this discussion but sadly I shall not be able to, because I'm going away and have never managed to make this board function in any comprehensible way on my mobile!)
Ah the distinction between that which is easy and that which is convincing
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