…although in Welsh ff is the only way to get an f sound, as for example in ffliwt, which is definitely my favourite word for flute in any of the not many languages with which I’m vaguely acquainted.
Pedants' Paradise
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This is a sticky topic.
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Originally posted by LMcD View PostI'm reading a large-print version of a novel, the title page of which assures me that it is 'complete and unabridged'.
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Originally posted by oddoneout View PostI used to wonder if unabridged was used to mean "as written" ie not bowdlerised/censored, and looking it up now see now that that is listed in some references as one of the senses in which it can be used. Still seems rather unnecessary to use both words thoughIt isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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Originally posted by french frank View Post
Etymologically speaking, abridge and abbreviate have the identical Latin origin: abbreviare - to shorten.
Wiki calls these pairs doublets' which have "different phonological forms but the same etymological root". There are many examples. They mention eg overture/aperture, frail /fragile.
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Have just spent 15 minutes assembling links and videos to explain to the BBC that the police chief in the Dutch hostage story, Anne Jan Oosterheert, is a man, and not to be referred to as Ms Oosterheert or 'she'. They usually change things but they must sigh when they see another email from me
Job done. And never a word of thanks!Last edited by french frank; 30-03-24, 20:48.It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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I once had to deal with a man named 'Holtom' (sic). As this is a rare surname most people called him 'Halton', especially when hearing it over the telephone. Unfortunately he showed no tolerance for this understandable error and got extremely shirty with anyone who made the mistake, reprimanding them at length.
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Originally posted by smittims View PostI once had to deal with a man named 'Holtom' (sic). As this is a rare surname most people called him 'Halton', especially when hearing it over the telephone. Unfortunately he showed no tolerance for this understandable error and got extremely shirty with anyone who made the mistake, reprimanding them at length.
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Interesting to learn how usage overtakes one's personal experience. I read on the BBC news website: 'the city's Manhattan borough, comprised predominately of Democrats'. Misspelling! It's 'predominantly'. Yes it is, but people write 'predominately' so often that it has passed into the dictionaries of English usage. I suppose it starts as a mishearing, plus a lack of grammatical knowledge: adj + ly gives the adverb (intelligent, intelligently; predominant, predominantly), whereas predominate is a verb ...
Oh, except that an adjective predominate has existed since at least 1591, side by side with predominant (earliest example 1575). Well, all I can say is it shouldn't have existed since 1591 . OED says it comes from praedominatus ("predominated") but praedominatus isn't actually an adjective, is it? It's a participle.
What next?It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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Originally posted by french frank View PostInteresting to learn how usage overtakes one's personal experience. I read on the BBC news website: 'the city's Manhattan borough, comprised predominately of Democrats'. Misspelling! It's 'predominantly'. Yes it is, but people write 'predominately' so often that it has passed into the dictionaries of English usage. I suppose it starts as a mishearing, plus a lack of grammatical knowledge: adj + ly gives the adverb (intelligent, intelligently; predominant, predominantly), whereas predominate is a verb ...
Oh, except that an adjective predominate has existed since at least 1591, side by side with predominant (earliest example 1575). Well, all I can say is it shouldn't have existed since 1591 . OED says it comes from praedominatus ("predominated") but praedominatus isn't actually an adjective, is it? It's a participle.
What next?
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