Originally posted by vinteuil
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Pedants' Paradise
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This is a sticky topic.
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Originally posted by vinteuil View Post... and when you speak, how do you articulate the apostrophe?Originally posted by Eine Alpensinfonie View PostI've often wondered that myself...
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There were rules of grammar into which we were drilled at school, back in the 1950s and 1960s. (Not that I wrote "into which we were drilled" as opposed to "we were drilled into", because one never, never ended a sentance a preposition with). Noticing as one does that correct spoken English seems most often to be observed in non-primarily English speaking people - especially from MEPs from Germany, Holland and the Scandinavian countries during the course of the EU referendum - it occurs that one source of good spoken English, which must surely have derived from the written, might be preserved by continuing to defend immigration from those countries, post-Brexit! For while modernisation of the language can be presented as a pretext for accepting any new changes to the language whatever, given that it only takes, for example, one person to refuse to insert apostrophes where they've previously been so to be taken as legitimate, how it will be made easier, from this time on, for anyone from non-English speaking countries to learn what is already one of the most difficult of languages in the western world to learn is anyone's guess.
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Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View PostThere were rules of grammar into which we were drilled at school, back in the 1950s and 1960s. (Not that I wrote "into which we were drilled" as opposed to "we were drilled into", because one never, never ended a sentance a preposition with).
"...the isle is full of noises,
Sounds and sweet airs, that give delight and hurt not.
Sometimes a thousand twangling instruments
Will hum about mine ears, and sometime voices..."
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Originally posted by vinteuil View Post... erm?
I suspect Serial comes from a Protestant tradition, believing that a written New Testament somehow preceded a practising Church
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Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View PostWell, I was thinking of people whose correct spoken English, in all probability, must have derived from the correctly written kind as taught, as opposed to the colloquial.
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Originally posted by vinteuil View Post... and languages that have no written form, or which have only acquired a written form recently - do the speakers thereof not speak "correctly", even without the benefit of writing?
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Originally posted by french frank View Post
The rigid so-called 'rules' of language laid out how language usage had developed among the educated classes (especially those of the 19th c.). Language came first; the 'rules' came afterwards, fossilising usages that were no longer current and insisting that they must continue to be adhered to.
Standardising language is not necessarily fossilising it. It just prevent chaos. Adhering to the language of the educated classes may be a better starting place than the uneducated classes. That could be called snobbery, but let's not go there.
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Originally posted by Serial_Apologist View PostI don't know the answer to that, assuming there is one. Presumably language formalisation was helped, if not enabled, by being written down. Can one say that?
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