Originally posted by Arcades Project
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For many centuries (under the accepted definition of marriage) a woman was a man's possession; everything that was hers was his; it was impossible for a man to rape a woman if they were married because she belonged to him & was obliged to obey him. Would you mind answering a question? if marriage means something unalterable am I right in thinking you regard the changes which removed the chattel status of women as social meddling & as going against the established meaning of marriage? If you don't regard those changes thus, then why can't the meaning of marriage change again?
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