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  • teamsaint
    Full Member
    • Nov 2010
    • 25232

    #16
    Originally posted by MrGongGong View Post
    hummm ?
    Really ?



    (they are very popular )
    That all went out of fashion in about 1976.
    Except for Americans, scousers and some rubbish acts.

    Here's a singer using a proper London accent !

    Order “Hit Me! The Best Of” by Ian Dury here: https://iandury.lnk.to/HitMeBestOfyv “What A Waste” was released by Stiff Records in 1978 and reached number 9 ...


    Gongers, you might find this video useful if you happen to be doing any singing lessons for your students !!(

    I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, debriefed or numbered. My life is my own.

    I am not a number, I am a free man.

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    • Gabriel Jackson
      Full Member
      • May 2011
      • 686

      #17
      Originally posted by Mary Chambers View Post
      Theoretically, I think the singer(s) should use the accent the composer used to set the words, but that is a lot easier said than done. That's much more important, I'd have thought, than the accent of the writer. What accent did RVW hear in his head when he composed the Sea Symphony? Do we know?
      I entirely agree that the accent of an author is irrelevant once their words are set, those words no longer being in their voice, but part of a piece of music.

      We don't know what accent RVW heard as he was writing the Sea Symphony, as you say - composers don't hear music in their heads in quite the same way people might think they do - but even if we did, do we want to mimic that? Britten's speaking voice now seems rather over-posh and affected to modern ears. I don't think anyone would want to try and sing Britten's music with such pronunciation!

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      • fsharpminor
        Full Member
        • Dec 2010
        • 24

        #18
        I think that's a slightly different question, and one that brings up a fact I've often pondered; why do we have such an emphasis on period instruments and 'authentic' perormance, but no attempt, as far as I know, at 'period singing'. Will it come?

        Comment

        • Gabriel Jackson
          Full Member
          • May 2011
          • 686

          #19
          Originally posted by fsharpminor View Post
          I think that's a slightly different question, and one that brings up a fact I've often pondered; why do we have such an emphasis on period instruments and 'authentic' perormance, but no attempt, as far as I know, at 'period singing'. Will it come?
          There certainly are attempts at period pronunciation, from a number of groups.

          Comment

          • Eine Alpensinfonie
            Host
            • Nov 2010
            • 20576

            #20
            Originally posted by fsharpminor View Post
            I think that's a slightly different question, and one that brings up a fact I've often pondered; why do we have such an emphasis on period instruments and 'authentic' perormance, but no attempt, as far as I know, at 'period singing'.
            I does happen. I was a member of the Chapter House Choir, York in 1990, when the conductor, Andrew Padmore, devoted an entire rehearsal to a session with a Rennaissance English/Latin expert, who schooled us in Latin pronunciation in Byrd's time. It was difficult to adapt, but quite fascinating.

            Comment

            • Mary Chambers
              Full Member
              • Nov 2010
              • 1963

              #21
              Originally posted by Gabriel Jackson View Post
              I entirely agree that the accent of an author is irrelevant once their words are set, those words no longer being in their voice, but part of a piece of music.

              We don't know what accent RVW heard as he was writing the Sea Symphony, as you say - composers don't hear music in their heads in quite the same way people might think they do - but even if we did, do we want to mimic that? Britten's speaking voice now seems rather over-posh and affected to modern ears. I don't think anyone would want to try and sing Britten's music with such pronunciation!
              I imagine composers vary in what they 'hear' (or not) as they compose. I agree that Britten's pronunciation would sound too 'posh' now - Pears's too, though he did modify it a little over the years when singing. That's why I said I felt using the accent of the composer was only theoretically desirable - even when we know what it was.

              Comment

              • fsharpminor
                Full Member
                • Dec 2010
                • 24

                #22
                I wasn't meaning authrntic pronunciation - I've been there, done that, including Latin as in Tudor England, Germany, Austria, Spain and even Mexico! I mean styles of singing - tone production, vowels, portamenti.

                Comment

                • Gabriel Jackson
                  Full Member
                  • May 2011
                  • 686

                  #23
                  Originally posted by fsharpminor View Post
                  I wasn't meaning authrntic pronunciation - I've been there, done that, including Latin as in Tudor England, Germany, Austria, Spain and even Mexico! I mean styles of singing - tone production, vowels, portamenti.
                  Presumably that's what Jantina Noorman of Musica Reservata thought she was doing (likewise Ensemble Organum in a different way more recently). There's much less information extant about these things when it comes to voices, isn't there, and old instruments do survive - from which much can be gleaned - and old bodies, and this voices, don't!

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