Originally posted by mercia
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Musical questions and answers thread
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Listening to the Rachmaninov Paganini fantasy the other night, and specifically the inverted variation, led me to thinking about the copyright issues that there might be, if a composer did the same thing today.
So if a contemporary composer inverted somebody else's tune and then used it without acknowledging the original source, would there be a potential case for the composer of the original tune, assuming it was still in copyright? Or if the composer of the piece who used the inverted tune did acknowledge the source, might there be royalty payments due ?
:I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, debriefed or numbered. My life is my own.
I am not a number, I am a free man.
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Originally posted by ferneyhoughgeliebte View PostA "contemporary composer" writing a "tune"???!!! Wash your keyboard out with soap!
( glad you reminded me though, this screen needs a good scrub down. Must get some Brillo....)
Oh, and thanks for the help , BTW.I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, debriefed or numbered. My life is my own.
I am not a number, I am a free man.
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The thing is that in them days the composer often composed the tune he was varying, and if he didn't there was no copyright anyway.
As for nowadays, on the Lionel Sawkins basis a sufficient reworking claims its own copyright from the original.It isn't given us to know those rare moments when people are wide open and the lightest touch can wither or heal. A moment too late and we can never reach them any more in this world.
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Originally posted by Lat-Literal View PostOfficially who are the national composers of the following countries - and why?
(a) England
(b) Scotland
(c) Wales
(d) N Ireland
(e) Britain
(f) Rep of Ire
(b) Sir Peter Maxwell Davies - because who else today is composing modern Scottish classical music, unless we include that Catholic bloke?
(c) Boyce, a different Max.
(d) Brian Irvine - because he's good and a mate of mine has been featured with him.
(e) Elgar - because he made Little Britain seem great when our forbears ignored most of the downsides?
(f) ...pass
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Originally posted by Lat-Literal View PostOfficially who are the national composers of the following countries - and why?
(a) England
(b) Scotland
(c) Wales
(d) N Ireland
(e) Britain
(f) Rep of Ire
(b) Thomas Erskine 6th Earl of Kellie
(c) Thomas Tomkins
(d) Ruaidri Dáll Ó Catháin
(e) William Lawes
(f) John Field
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Some interesting posts here.
Surely in the US it is Copland and in Brazil it is Villa-Lobos?
Maybe the Europeans are less sure about this sort of thing?Last edited by Lat-Literal; 10-10-15, 10:04.
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Originally posted by Lat-Literal View PostOfficially who are the national composers of the following countries - and why?
(a) England
(b) Scotland
(c) Wales
(d) N Ireland
(e) Britain
(f) Rep of Ire
Now if you mean the 'most representative' there's possibly room for discussion.Last edited by Pabmusic; 10-10-15, 10:26.
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