It was interesting to read (on a primarily American board) a statement that compared the relative merits of Rachmaninov and Elgar with Bach and Telemann.
I don't think there can be any argument that Bach was a far greater composer than Telemann, but the implication here that (by comparison) Rachmaninov was far greater than Elgar?
Given American biases -and for that matter British biases- something isn't quite right here.
Any thoughts?
I don't think there can be any argument that Bach was a far greater composer than Telemann, but the implication here that (by comparison) Rachmaninov was far greater than Elgar?
Given American biases -and for that matter British biases- something isn't quite right here.
Any thoughts?
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