Listening to Shostakovich 5 in the car today, I was struck again by something which has often perplexed me: how to go about writing a symphony pre-music software.
When they are writing a symphony, do they hear all those instrumental parts in their heads?
I can understand how, say, Mahler could compose symphonies having conducted so many for so long. There, I can see a path from one to the other. I could also understand a symphony being written in conjunction with an orchestra.
But as a purely mental exercise à la late-period Beethoven, it blows my mind how this was/is achieved.
If say, the deaf Beethoven were to read a Mahler or Shostakovich symphonic manuscripts, would he be able to 'hear' this new sound world, even if he'd never experienced it himself, purely through the notation?
Is it inevitable to assume that composers brains are somehow wired differently to cope with the sheer copiousness of a symphonic structure as a (sometimes) purely mental exercise?
When they are writing a symphony, do they hear all those instrumental parts in their heads?
I can understand how, say, Mahler could compose symphonies having conducted so many for so long. There, I can see a path from one to the other. I could also understand a symphony being written in conjunction with an orchestra.
But as a purely mental exercise à la late-period Beethoven, it blows my mind how this was/is achieved.
If say, the deaf Beethoven were to read a Mahler or Shostakovich symphonic manuscripts, would he be able to 'hear' this new sound world, even if he'd never experienced it himself, purely through the notation?
Is it inevitable to assume that composers brains are somehow wired differently to cope with the sheer copiousness of a symphonic structure as a (sometimes) purely mental exercise?
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