Originally posted by Roehre
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Late works
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Roehre
Originally posted by makropulos View PostThis is interesting. If late works can only be defined satisfactorily as works composed at the end of a composer's output, then surely Mahler 9/10 etc. are just that, as are Beethoven's late works, and the last works of Janacek, Bartok and many others (including Schubert and Mozart). I don't quite understand why - given your definition - what stops Berg's final works being described as "late works"?
of course Arriaga's Symphony is a late work, but does that epithet stylistically make any sense?
Of course Lekeu's last work is a late work, but does it make stylistically any sense?
Of course Schubert's last sonatas and his string quintet are late works but does that make sense, or calling Mozart's Requiem a late work?
of course Bach's Kunst der Fuge is a late (and unfinished) work, but does that make any sense stylistically ?
Mahler 9/10/LvdE as "late" works stylistically makes sense as there there is a stylistical difference between this trilogy and Mahler's earlier works, caused by very specific circumstances; hence an exception confirming the rule.
The term "late work" is vacuus, as it does not say anything else than it's composed at the the end of a composer's career.
It is void of any other quality. And that's exactly the opposite of what Sondheim implies.
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I know Richard Strauss has already been mentioned as not fitting into Sondheim's notion, but he needs to be mentioned again. His Vier letzte Lieder is prime example of a composer blossoming towards the end of his life. There's nothing second-rate about it, despite being written by an 84-year-old and being by any definition one cares to come up with 'late'.
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Originally posted by Roehre View Post"Late works " cannot be defined satisfactorily otherwise but as works composed in late stages or at the end of a composer's output (not life: Sibelius!). That doesn't say anything about these works' quality or their stylistic contents.
Indeed I don't regard Berg's as "late" works, Beethoven was developing a "new" style (hence op.135 is much more classical than 130-133), Mahler 9/10/LvdE might be called a late style, as it's a result of realisation of his own mortality, but is Strauss' contemporary Rosenkavalier then a "late work"?
Did he give any reason? I'm generally reluctant to subscribe to anything, so I can't read the full article.
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