The rationale behind the new Rhapsody in Blue with Ricardo Chailly, the Gewandhaus Orchestra and jazz pianist - Stefano Bollani - largely busking the piano part seems to be that Gershwin improvised the piano part at the first performance as he hadn't got round to writing it down.
As Beethoven did the same thing at the first performance of the 3rd Piano Concerto I wondered if anyone thought it might be a good idea to have a jazzer improvise a new piano part for that, or alternatively might explain why a Gershwin text is less deserving of adherence than that of a 19th Century German?
As Beethoven did the same thing at the first performance of the 3rd Piano Concerto I wondered if anyone thought it might be a good idea to have a jazzer improvise a new piano part for that, or alternatively might explain why a Gershwin text is less deserving of adherence than that of a 19th Century German?
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