Le Roman de Fauvel and Tous Les Matins du Monde

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  • Roehre

    #16
    Originally posted by ardcarp View Post
    What a truly FABULOUS EMS on Sat.(....)

    I've got a few queries which experts on The Forum may be able to answer.

    1. Some of the texts were in Latin (the conductus and the motets) whilst some were in medieval French. I don't think the programme touched on the proportions of Latin/French texts in the musical settings.
    "French" is the mainly used language, but where the Church (or more correctly: its clergy) is satirized, logically "Latin" comes in. Both languages between brackets, as both are (in many respects very) different from what we now do understand to be French or Latin.
    2. The modern. pronunciation of FAUVEL would have the 'au' pronounced roughly as 'o' as in 'hotel'. I noticed the singers used 'ow'...presumably a medieval version, whilst Emma tended to say 'a' (short 'a'). Which is best?
    Neither, as it is not "French" as we speak it today -that being mainly the Parisian dialect/pronunciation-, nor a specific dialect.
    The latter means that e.g. "L'ane" (the ass, sorry for the missing accent circonflexe) may be pronounced correctly as Aan (present-day Isle-de-France French) as well as Aing (a more Occitan or even Provencal way of pronunciation).
    [BTW: The way the "French" is pronounced by the Cohen performance is IMO less authentic [i.e. IMO un-French] than e.g. the Clemencic Consort's recording or the one by the Studio der frühen Musik (A discussion we had on these boards the first time this EMS was broadcast) and therefore less preferable than the latter ones. Nevertheless all three are very enjoyable recordings anyway.]

    3. How much of the instrumental accompaniment (drones, the harp part) was conjectural?
    The accompaniment itself could be best described as an "intelligent and well-informed conjecture", as from contemporary iconography we know satires like Le Roman de Fauvel were accompanied by instruments or even an instrumental ensemble.
    Fiddle(-like), harp(-like) instruments, with flute and some percussion, and a kind of hurdy-gurdy have been used with certainty. The musical lines are known (or quite easily reconstructable) and then it's a matter of taste and performing edition how the sung/spoken parts are instrumentally accompanied.
    4. 'France' is referred to in the text (the garden of France, for instance) and I wonder what geographical region France occupied in the early 14th C. Not Brittany, presumably, and how far south did it go...to the Pyrenees?
    "France" here is to be defined as the area in which mainly "French" and "Langue d'Oeuil" was spoken, roughly present day France without Brittanny, without the Compté de Toulouse, the Provence, the eastern part of Burgundy, and Alsace and Lorraine. It is therefore a wider area than that effectively controlled by the French King (as it includes the English controlled parts in the South-West, Gascony and in the Dordogne e.g.)
    Last edited by Guest; 27-01-13, 14:56.

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    • Roehre

      #17
      Originally posted by vinteuil View Post
      The fourteenth century is when "France" begins to re-establish itself into a territory more akin to the France of today.
      In 1259 England was still in possession of Gascony - Aquitaine (Guyenne) - much of Perigord, Limousin, Saintonges, Angoumois.
      Much of the last had been regained by France before the death of Philip IV in 1314, and by the death of Charles IV in 1328 France extended down to the Pyrenees (tho' the English held out in part of Gascony). France still didn't control Brittany, as you indicate - nor much of the territory to the east of the Saône and Rhône that we now see as "France" (Brittany, Burgundy, Provence, Auvergne, the Bourbonnais join France in the fifteenth century); but its possessions in Flanders put it in control of what is now northern Belgium (Bruges, Ghent, and as far as Antwerp).

      But this is not really my period and I defer to those expert in the matter - French Frank, perhaps?
      Generally speaking agreed (see my other posting below), with exception of the possessions in Flanders. Nominally the County of Flanders [the present Belgian Provinces of West-vlaanderen, Oost-vlaanderen and Antwerpen) was (since the treaty of Verdun 843) technically a part of what then was called Neustria, from which eventually France as we know it now developed.
      In reality however Vlaanderen was a county within the area of the Netherlands (then encompassing basically the whole of the present day Benelux countries plus Northern French areas as Picardie, Arras and Lille [Rijssel]), with hardly any more French influence than acknowledging the formal overlordship of the French king).

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